Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper I

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Nerve Supply of Larynx except:

(A) Superior laryngeal nerve.
(B) Recurrent laryngeal nerve.
(C) Ext. branch of superior laryngeal nerve.
(D) Ansa cervicalis nerve.

2. Primary Motor area of the Brain:

(A) Superior temporal gyri.
(B) Post central gyri
(C) Pre central gyri.
(D) Inferior frontal gyri.

3. Aductor polics muscle supplied by nerve:

(A) Radial nerve.
(B) Median nerve.
(C) deep branch of peroneal nerve
(D) Superficial branch of ulnar nerv

4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of:

(A) Vertebral artery.
(B) Posterior cerebellar artery.
(C) Basilary artery.
(D) Internal carotid artery.

5. One of the boundary of Inguinal triangle:

(A) Conjoint tendon.
(B) Pectineal line.
(C) Linea semilunaris.
(D) Inferior epigastria artery.

6. Structures pass through cavernous sinus except

(A) Internal carotid artery.
(B) Occulomotor nerve.
(C) Abducent nerve.
(D) Mandibular branch of Trigeminal nerve.

7.Gluteus maximus muscle is inserted into:

(A) Greater tronchanter.
(B) Shaft of femur.
(C) Glutial tubersity + ilio tibial tract.
(D) Ilio tibial tract.

8.Inferior epigastric artery is branch of:

(A) Femoral artery.
(B) Ext. iliac artery.
(C) Internal iliac artery.
(D) Lateral circumflex artery

9.Muscle attached to Ulnar tuberosity

(A) Supinator.
(B) Biceps brachi.
(C) Brachialis.
(D) Flexorcarpi ulnaris.

10.Anterior fold of axilla is formed by:

(A) Pectoralis major + minor.
(B) Pectoralis major + serratus anterior.
(C) Pectoralis major + clavi pectrol fascia.
(D) Pectoralis major + subscapularies.

11. Attachment of semi membranous include:

(A) Ischial tubersity + medial tibial condyle.
(B) Ischial tubersity + tibial shaft.
(C) Ischial tubersity + fibular head.
(D) Ischial tubersity + lateral condyle of tibia.

12. Uterain artery is a branch of:

(A) Common iliac artery.
(B) Internal iliac artery.
(C) External iliac artery.
(D) Lateral sacral artery.

13. Duodenal ulcer bleeds from:

(A) Left gastric artery.
(B) Gastro duodenal artery.
(C) gastric artey-
(D) Superior pancreatico duodenal artery.

14. Neck pulsation felt inferiorly at medial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle is:

(A) Vertebral.
(B) Bracheal.
(C) Subclavian.
(D) Internal jugular.

15. Mandibular nerve lesion at origin involves following:

(A) Buccinator.
(B) Masseter.
(C) Lateral pterigoid.
(D)) Tensor tympani.

16. Following have lymphatics except:

(A) Brain.
(B) Dermis.
(C) Eye.
(D) Internal ear.

17. Trachea bifurcates at the level of (during deep inspiration):

(A) T6-7
(B) T3-4
(C) T 5-6
(D) T4-5

18. Oesophagus and Duodenum share:

(A) Submucus glands.
(B) Mucus cells.
(C) Pseudo stratified column epithelium.
(D) All of the above.

19. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

(A) Internal iliac.
(B) External iliac artery.
(C) Common iliac artery.
(D) Aorta.

20. Phrenic nerve branch from the roots of:

(A) C2,3.
(B) C1,2,3.
(C) C3,4,5.
(D) C4,5,6.

21. Deep peroneal nerve supplies to:

(A) Lateral group of muscles of leg.
(B) Peronous longus + Extensor digitorium braves.
(C) Lateral group of muscles of leg – extensor digitorium braves.
(D) Posterior muscles of leg.

22. Thoracic duct ends at

(A) Junction of left sub clavian and internal jugular veins.
(B) Left jugular vein.
(C) Left sub clavian vein.
(D) Right jugular vein.

23. Chorda tympani nerve is a branch of:

(A) Trigeminal.
(B) Facial nerve.
Spinal accessory
(D) Glossopharyngeal.

24. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies to:

(A) Sterno hyoid.
(B) Thyro hyoid.
(C) Omo hyoid + Sterno thyroid.
(D) All of the above.

25. Nerve supply of Extraocular muscles:

(A) Occulomotor.
(B) Abducent.
(C) Trochlear.
(D) All of the above.

26. Woiffian duct gives rise to:

(A) Tunica vaginalies.
(B) Testis.
(C) Epididymis and vas deferéns.
(D) Uterus.

27. The sphennoid air sinus opens into:

(A) Middle meatus.
(B) Spheno ethmoidl recess.
(C) Inferior meatus.
(D) Bulla ethmoid.

28. Medial side of great toe is supplied by nerve:

(A) Saphenous.
(B) Tibial posterior.
(C) Anterior tibial.
(D) Deep peroneal.

29. Pisiform bone gives attachment to:

(A) Pisohamate ligament.
(B) Abductor pollicus.
(C) Extensor carpi ulnaris.
(D) Flexor pollicus.

30. Internal pudendal artery is a branch of:

(A) Superior iliac.
(B) Common peroneal.
(C) Internal iliac.
(D) Abdominal aorta.

31. Narrowest part of male urethra is at:

(A) Fossa navicularies.
(B) Bulbar urethra.
(C) External meatus.
(D) Prostatic urethra.

32. Double nerve supply is received by:

(A) Abductor magnus.
(B) Abductor longus.
(C) Abductor bravis.
(D) Gracilus.

33. Superior rectal vein drains into:

(A) Portal vein.
(B) Internal lilac vein.
(C) Hepatic vein
(D) Renal vein.

34. Dentate nucleus is a part of:

(A) Mid brain.
(B) Pons.
(C) Medulla.
(D) Cerebellum.

35. Duct of wirsung opens at:

(A) Minor papilla.
(B) Major papilla.
(C) Upper 2nd Molar.
(D) Side of the frenulum of tongue.

36. Skeletal muscle is deficient in:

(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase.
(B) Phospho fructokinase.
(C) Hexo kinase.
(D) Isomerase.

37. The urine Urobilinogen is tested with:

(A) Benedicts test.
(B) Rotherrs test.
(C) Tri-iodine test.
(D) Ehrlichs aldehyde test.

38. Tn Nephrotic syndrome with hyperlipidemia, correct is:
Volume Serum Sodium

(A) Hyper Volemia Low
(B) Hypo Volemia Low
(C) Hyper Volemia High
(D) Hyper Volemia Normal

39. Adult Haemoglobin consists of chains:

(A) 2a+2B
(B) 2B+2Y
(C) 2a+2Z
(D) 2a+2Y

40. In which of the following Haemoglobin is abnormal?

(A) Sickle cell anaemia.
(B) Pernicious anaemia.
(C) G-6 P-D Deficiency.
(D) Hereditary spherocytosis.

41. Liver does not synthesize:

(A) Gamma globulin.
(B) Albumin.
(C) Prothrombin.
(D) Fibrinogen.

42. High dose of glucose causes all except:

(A) Pancreatic Amylose.
(B) Glucose 6 Phosphatosoe.
(C) Acetyl Carboxylosoe.
(D) G-6 PD levels.

43. Atherosclerosis occurs in following except

(A) Biliary cirrhosis.
(B) Hypercholestreuria.
(C) Hyperalimentation.
(D) Clofibrate Theary.

44. Membrane integrity of R.B.C. is due to:

(A) P. Protein.
(B) Spectrin.
(C) Ankyrin.
(D) Glycophorin.

45. Which is metabolised like xenobiotics?

(A) Myoglobulin
(B) Biliverdin
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) Bilirubin

46. Gastrin is secreted from:

(A) Duodenum.
(B) Pyloric Antrum.
(C) Lesser curvature.
(D) Cardiac.

47. Human body can store oxygen for:

(A) 4-10 minutes.
(B) 15-20 minutes.
(C) 25 minutes.
(C)) 30 minutes.

48. The following are required for calcium absorption except:

(A) Bile salts.
(B) Calcitonin.
(C) Vitamin D.
(D) Para Thyroid Hormone.

49. Flow during last stage of expiration decreases because of:

(A) Collapse of Alveoli.
(B) Dynamic compression of air ways.
(C) Breaking by inspiratory muscles.
(D) All of the above.

50. Pulse pressure varies as blood flows to the extremities due to:

(A) Change in velocity.
(B) Change in viscosity.
(C) Cross sectional area.
(D) Change in vessel wall.

51. Platue phase of action potential is seen in:

(A) A. V. Node.
(B) S. A. Node.
(C) Atrial fibres.
(D) Ventricular fibres.

52. Which gas is not responsible for green house effect?

(A) Ozone
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Nitrus oxide
(D) Carbon-dioxide

53. Sperm motility is caused by:

(A) Epididymis.
(B) Testis.
(C) Vas-deferens.
(D) Prostatic secretion.

54. Order of activation after of Purkinje Fibers is

(A) Epiendo septum.
(B) Endo epi septum.
(C) Endo cardium septum epicardium.
(D) Episeptum endocardium.

55. Normal mitral valve area in adults is:

(A) 0.5-2cm
(B) 1-4 cm
(C) 4-6 cm
(D) 6-8 cm

56. Daily loss of water from skin in absence of visible sweating is:

(A) 1. 5 litres.
(B) 1 litre.
(C) 500 – 700 ml.
(D) 200 – 300 ml.

57. Iron absorption is increased by:

(A) Fiber diet.
(B) Vit-C.
(C) Phosphates.
(D) Phytic Acid.

58. Pulse blood pressure is:

(A) diastolic + 1/3 systolic.
(B) Diastolic + – systolic.
(C) 1/3 diastolic ÷ systolic.
(D) Systolic – Diastolic B. P.

59.F.S.H. & I.C.S.H. are produced by:

(A) Ovarian follicles.
(B) Corpus luteum.
(C) Endometrium. –
(D) Adeno hypophysis.

60. Renal artery constriction is associated with:

(A) Heart disease.
(B) Carotid artery stenosis.
(C) Azyotemia.
(D) Hyper tension.

61. Sodium is maximum in:

(A) Extra cellular spaces.
(B) Intra cellular spaces.
(C) Interstitial spaces.
(D) Bone.

62. Normal glucose level present in C.S.F. is

(A) 5omgto8Omg.
(B) 8omgtol20mg.
(C) 120 mg to 180 mg.
(D) not present.

63. Normal daily secretion of gastric intestinal tract is:

(A) 2000 cc.
(B) 3000 cc.
(C) 5500 cc.
(D) 8000 cc.

64. Beta-Endorphins are released from:

(A) Adrenal cortex.
(B) Anterior and intermediate lobe of pituitary.
(C) Posterior lobe of pituitary.
(D) Thyroid.

65. Hemoglobin to appear first in fetus is:

(A) HbA
(B) Hb A2
(C)HbF
(D) HbGowers

66.Glomerular filtration is most dependent on:

(A) Renal blood flow.
(B) Pressure in bowman’s capsule.
(C) Glomerular capillary pressure.
(D) Plasma membrane pressure.

67. During action potential permeability of following increases:

(A) Chlorine-
(B) Sodium+
(C) Potassium +
(D) HCO

68. Auditory impulses relay to:

(A) Sup calliculus.
(B) Medial leminiscus.
(C) Inferior geniculate.
(D) Medial geniculate body.

69. Iron (Fe) Absorption decreases by following except:

(A) Phytates.
(B) Phosphate.
(C) Vit-C.
(D) Taurine.

70. Thirst center is situated in:

(A) Hypo thalamus.
(B) Cerebellum.
(C) Medulla Oblongeta.
(D) Cerebrum.

71. Cantharis is prepared from:

(A) Spanish fly.
(B) Cockroach.
(C) Home fly.
(D) Honeybee.

72. Stapf process is used in the purification of:

(A) Alcohol.
(B) Water.
(C) Sugar of milk.
(D) Glycerine.

73. 2nd volume of H.P.I. published in the year:

(A) 1892.
(B) 1971.
(C) 1974.
(D) 1992.

74. The branch of pharmacy which deals with the action of drugs:

(A) Pharmacology.
(B) Pharmacopaedia.
(C) Pharmacopia.
(D) Pharmacography.

75. Which is the Hahnemann compound?

(A) Kali-carb.
(B) Nat-sulp.
Lachesis muta
(D) Cal-sulp.

76. Symbol for if necessary:

(A) Q.I.D.
(B) P.C.
(C) S.O.S.
(D) HS.

77. Juice of the fresh plant is mixed with alcohol in:

(A) Class IX.
(B) Class 1.
(C) New Method.
(D) Potentisation.

78. Vehicle for a linament is:

(A) Paraffin.
(B) Spermeceti.
(C) Glycerine.
(D) Vegetable oil.

79. Polarimeter is used for determining:

(A) Specific gravity.
(B) P.H.
(C) Optical rotation.
(D) Boiling point.

80. One tea-spoon is equal to:

(A) 15 ml.
(B) 10 ml.
(C) 5m1.
(D) 2m1.

81. The encephalopathy commonly seen in chronic alcoholics is:

(A) Reyes Syndrome.
(B) Multicystic encephalopa thy.
(C) Werneike’s encephalopathy.
(D) Spongiform encephalopathy.

82. The hepatocytes formed only in the carriers of chronic Hepatitis B are:

(A) Tombstone cells.
(B) Councilman bodies.
(C) Ground Glass cells.
(D) Kupffer cells.

83. The eggs of Schistosoma mansoni are characterised by:

(A) Lateral spine.
(B) Terminal spine.
(C) Lateral knob.
(D) None of the above.

84. The only nematode having a free living life cycle along with parasitic life cycle is:

(A) Necator Americanus.
(B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
(C) Dracunculus medinensis.
(1)) Trichinella spirates.

85. The eggs are golden brown in colour in:

(A) Ascaris.
(B) Enterobius vermicularis.
(C) Ancylostoma deodenale
(D) Trichiuris trichiuria.

86. Pernicious malaria is caused by:

(A) Plasmodium Ovale.
(B) Plasmodium falciparum.
(C) Plasmodium malariae.
(D) Plasmodium Vivax.

87. 50% of the gastric carcinomas arise from:

(A) Cardiac end of the stomach.
(B) Lesser curvature.
(C) Antrum.
(D) Greater curvature.

88. The intradermal test diagnostic of Echinococcus Granulosis is:

(A) Casinos test.
(B) Leishmanin test.
(C) Sabinfeidman dye test.
(D) Bentonite test.

89. Meleyney’s ulcer is caused by:

(A) Wet gangrene.
(B) Dry gangrene.
(C) Synergistic gangrene.
(D) Gas gangrene.

90. The purple discolouration which develops in the dependent parts of a dead body is called:

(A) Postmortem clotting.
(B) Livor mortis.
(C) Algar mortis.
(D) Riger moths.

91. Lines of zahnare seen in:

(A) Ischeniia.
(B) Thrombolis.
(C) Embolism.
(D) Fibroids.

92. Wilson’s disease is caused by accumulation in the body of:

(A) Iron.
(B) Magnesium.
(C) Calcium.
(D) Copper.

93. Inhalation of dust,dander, pollen molds initiates the formation of:

(A) 1gM.
(B) IgA.
(C) IgE.
(D) IgG.

94. Post-pneumonic fibrosis is called:

(A) Carnification.
(B) Hepatization.
(C) Consolidation.
(D) Legionnaires disease.

95. Chronic bacterial pneumonia can occur as a result of:

(A) A sequele to acute pneumonia.
(B) Prolonged smoking.
(C) In apart of lung caused by bronchogenic carcinoma
(D) All of the above.

96. The disease occurring in cotton workers is:

(A) Berryliosis.
(B) Pneumoconiosis.
(C) Byssinosis.
(D) Brucellosis.

97. The following dietary factors are responsible for carcinoma stomach except:

(A) Nitrates.
(B) Nitrites.
(C) Nitro carbons.
(D) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

98. A malignant tumour arising from extreme apex of a lung:

(A) Pancoast tumour.
(B) Wilm’s tumour.
(C) Salivary tumour.
(D) Blastoma.

99. River blindness is caused by:

(A) Brugia timori.
(B) Loa ba.
(C) Onchocerca valvulus.
(D) Mansonella Ozzardi.

100. A brisk, acute inflammatory reaction which develops within few minutes after an injection of antigen into the skin of an animal is:

(A) Tuberculin reaction.
(B) Arthus reaction.
(C) Contact sensitivi
(D) Cytotoxic reaction.

101. Down’s syndrome is associated with:

(A) Trisomy 21.
(B) Mother aged 30-45 years.
(C) Mangoloid face.
(D) Allof the above.

102. The cells in the most of chronic lymphogenous leukemia are:

(A) Lymphoblasts.
(B) Lymphocytes.
(C) Palger-Huet Phenomenon.
(D) T-cells.

103. Humoral immunity is mediated by:

(A) T. Lymphocytes.
(B) B. Lymphocytes.
(C) Kupffer cells.
(D) Monocytes.

104. The malignant pustule with vesiculation, white cell infiltration and necrosis is usually produced by:

(A) Adeno virus.
(B) Leishmania donovani.
(C) Anthrax bacillus.
(D) Pasterella tulerensis.

105. Which of the following may be found in a patient with pulmonary infarction?

(A) Dyspnoea
(B) Pain in breathing
(C) Haemoptysis
(D) All of the above.

106. Gastrin is produced primarily in:

(A) Antrum.
(B) Pylorus.
(C) Pancreas.
(D) Liver.

107. The following may be common manifestation of mumps e

(A) Orchitis.
(B) Pancreatitis.
(C) Parotitis.
(D) All of the above.

108. Pulmonary emboli most commonly originate from:

(A) The right heart.
(B) Superficial veins of the lower extremity.
(C) Deep leg veins of the lower extremity.
(D) Pelvic veins.

109. The most common cause of death in cirrhosis is:

(A) Hemorrhage.
(B) Renal failure.
(C) Liver failure.
(D) Septicemia.

110. The excretion of uric acid is impaired by:

(A) Morphin.
(B) Nicotine.
(C) Alcohol.
(D) None of the above

111. The most common organism in burn sepsis is:

(A) Streptococcus.
(B) Staphylococcus.
(C) Proteins.
(D) Pseudomonas.

112. Organisms that may cause cripitant cellulitis include all except:

(A) Clostridia.
(B) Bacteroids.
(C) Staphylococcus.
(D) Anaerobic streptococcus.

113. Amoebic ulceration is most commonly noted in:

(A) Ileum.
(B) Caecum.
(C) Appendix.
(D) Ascending colon.

114. A commonly observed complication of botulism is:

(A) Massive hematemesis.
(B) Respiratory failure.
(C) Convulsions.
(D) Tetany.

115. The most important factor in preventing tetanus is:

(A) Tetanus antitoxin.
(B) Tetanus toxoid.
(C) Previous immunization.
(D) Proper initial wound care.

116. Cyclodevelopmental parasite

(A) Micro filaria.
(B) Flavi virus.
(C) P. vivax.
(D) S.japonicum.

117. Food poisoning is caused by:

(A) V. Cholerae type 139.
(B) S. para typhi. A.
(C) Cl. perfringens.
(D) Staph epidermis.

118. Vitamin-D is not present in:

(A) Cod liver oil.
(B) Fish fat.
(C) Milk.
(D) Egg.

119. Normal iron requirement during pregnancy:

(A) 2mg.
(B) 40mg.
(C) 80mg.
(D) 100 mg.

120.Additional calories required during lactation:

(A) 450.
(B) 550
(C)650.
(D)750.

121.M.T.P. is done up to weeks:

(A) 28
(B) 7
(C) 14
(D) 10

122.Most common source of Lenolic Acid:

(A) Mustard oil.
(B) Sunflower oil.
(C) Groundnut oil.
(D) Safflower oil.

123. Following are good sources f Vitamin-B12 except:

(A) Soyabean.
(B) Liver.
(C) Fish.
(D) Meat.

124. In Japanese encephalitis following are true except:

(A) Mortality 10%.
(B) C. TRITAENEORHYRICHUS most important vector in South India.
(C) I.P. 5-15 days.
(D) Vaccination of population at risk recommended.

125. Immunity develops — after Japanese Encephalitis vaccination:

(A) 7 days.
(B) 15 days.
(C) 30 days.
(D) 60 days.

126. Which of the following vaccines is not to be given to a patient with AIDS?

(A) B.C.G.
(B) D.P.T.
(C) O.P.V.
(D) Measles.

127. Vaccine CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY

(A) Tuberculin.
(B) Polio.
(C) Hepatitis-B.
(D) Typhoid.

128. Depression is best measured by:

(A) Arithmetic mean.
(B) Geometric mean.
(C) Immunization.
(D) Chemo therapy.

129. In a suspected case of Polio following are done except:

(A) Isolation.
(B) Notification.
(C) Immunization.
(D) Chemo therapy.

130. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

(A) HBS Ag is used.
(B) Ig G anti HBC.
(C) HBC Ag.
(D) HB&Ag.

131. Disease to be eradicated by 2000 AD:

(A) Filaria.
(B) Malaria.
(C) Tetanus
(D) Typhoid.

132. Daily requirement of calcium in pregnancy is:

(A) 50mg.
(B) 100mg.
(C) 500mg.
(D) 1000 mg.

133. A child develops food poisoning 16-18 hours after consuming ice-cream, the most probable causative organism in this case is

(A) Staphylococcus aureus.
(B) Salmonella Typhimurium.
(C) Clastridium Perfringes.
(D) Clastridium Botulium.

134. Fluoride level in drinking water should be:

(A) 0.5 PPM.
(B) 1.0 PPM;
(C) 0.3 PPM.
(D) 2.0 PPM.

135. Jaggery is rich in:

(A) Vitamin-B2.
(B) Iron.
(C) Niacin.
(D) Vitamin-C.

136. For a patient with burns more than 40%, average energy requirement is:

(A) 4000 Calories
(B) 4500 Calories
(C) 6000 Calories
(D) 7000 Calories

137. Man is intermediate host for:

(A) Enterobiasis
(B) Schislosomiasis Harmotobiurn
(C) Echinococcus
(D) Tarnia Saginata.

138. Breast feeding is contra indicated, if mother receiving:

(A) Saline.
(B) Broad Spectrum antibiotics.
(C) Anti thyroid drugs
(D) Streptoinycine

139. Noise induced hearing loss affects frequency of:

(A) 1000 Hz.
(B) 2000 Hz.
(C) 3000 Hz.
(D) 4000 Hz.

140. Ringer Lactate Solution contains following electrolytes:

(A) Na+and Cl
(B) Na+;K+ and Cl
(C) Na + ; K + Cl and Ca
(D) Na +; K + and HCO

141. BARBERIOUS test is used to detect:

(A) Animal blood.
(B) Human blood.
(C) Vaginal fluid.
(D) Semen.

142. Generalised convulsions are seen in poisoning with

(A) Nux-vom.
(B) Mercury.
(C) Lead.
(D) Arsenic.

143. ABRASION collaris is seen with:

(A) Rifle bullet.
(B) Dum-Dum bullet.
(C) Richochetto wound.
(D) None of the above.

144. Inquest which is not carried out in India is:

(A) Coroner’s Inquest.
(B) Police Inquest.
(C) Magistrate Inquest.
(D) Medical examiner’s Inquest.

145. Rigor Mortis simulate:

(A) Cadaveric spasm.
(B) Livor Mortis.
(C) Algur Mortis.
(D) Mummification.

146. Test for detection of old blood stain is:

(A) Precipitin test.
(B) Benzidine test.
(C) Gel diffusion.
(D) Absorption elution.

147. Medical negligence falls under following except:

(A) Sec. 304 A.
(B) Indian Contract Act.
(C) IPC 312.
(D) IPC 351.

148. Aseptic Autolysis is seen in:

(A) Maceration.
(B) Mummification.
(C) Rigor mortis
(D) Putrefaction.

149. Widmark formula is used in:

(A) Alcohol.
(B) Barbiturates.
(C) Cannabis.
(D) Opium.

150. Golden hair is seen in poisoning with:

(A) Arsenic.
(B) Mercury.
(C) Lead.
(D) Copper.

Download answer key : www.homeobook.com/pdf/kerala-mdentrance-2001-key.pdf

More Homoeopathy PG Entrance Question papers
https://www.homeobook.com/category/question-papers/md-hom-question-papers/

Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper I

Be the first to comment

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Enjoyed this website? Please spread a word