Kerala PSC Homoeopathy Tutor in Social and Preventive Medicine paper 2006

Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Social & Preventive Medicine onducted in Dec 2006

Maximum: 100 marks       D series       Time: 1 hour and 15 minutes

1.Eradicate the disposition to worms

• (A) Calcarea carb (B) Spigelia
• (C) Cina                    (D) Sabadilla

2. Mumps complicating to orchitis and mastitis

• (A) Rhustox (B) PulsatiUa
• (C) Lachesis (D) Belladonna

3.If there is delayed resolution in pneumonia:

• (A) Phosphorus (B) Kalicarb
• (C) Lycopodium (D) None of the above

4.Important medicine for Weils disease

• (A) Sulphur (B) Arsalb
• (C) Lachesis (D) Phosphorus

5. Vertigo when turning the head:

• (A) Conium mac (B) Nuxvomica
• (C) Calcarea carb (D) Tabacuin

6. Medicine for angina pectoris:

• (A) Bryonea       (B) Latro dectus mactans
• (C) Gelsemium (D) Sulphur

7. For Locomotor Ataxia:

• (A) Alumina (B) Nuxvomica
• (C) Rhustox (D) Sulphur

8. For atherosclerosis to dissolve the calcareous deposits in the arteries:

• (A) Cactus       (B) Adonis
• (C) Crataegus (D) Naja

9. For Menieres disease:

• (A) Nuxvomica (B) Tabacum
• (C) Gelsemium (D) Chininum sulph

10. For chloasma

• (A) Sulphur (B) Lachesis
• (C Sepia        (D) None of the above

11. Pellagra is caused by: –

• (A) Riboflavin deficiency (B) Niacin deficiency
• (C) Both (A)and(B)  (D) None of the above

12. Vitamin B12 is:

• (A Cyanocobalamin (B) Niacin
• (C) Folic acid               (D) Pyridoxine

13. Body mass index (BMI) is:

• (A) Weight in gram/(Height in cm (Height in cm)2   (B) Weight in Kg/ ht in cm)2
• (C) Weight in Kg/(Height in meters)2                              (D) None of the above

14. Major criteria of Rheumatic fever is:

• (A) Pancarditis (B) Arthralgia
• (C) Fever             (D) Raised ESR

15. Whooping cough is caused by:

• (A) Salmonella typhi (B) Bordetella pertussis
• (C) Staphylococci       (D) Streptococci

16.In Rotavirus diarrhoea:

• (A) No vomiting
• (B) Vomiting occurs after diarrhoea
• (C) Vomiting precedes diarrhoea
• (D) Vomiting and diarrhoea occurs at a time

17. Risus sardonicus is a feature of:

• (A) Mumps (B) Tetanus
• (C) Syphilis (D) Chicken pox

18. AIDS is caused by:

• (A) Human immuno deficiency virus (B) Papiloma virus
• (C) RNA virus                                                (D) Rotavirus

19. Tuberculosis is caused by:

• (A) AFB                                             (B) Alcohol fast bacilli
• (C) Mycobacteriuin tuberculi  (D) Salmonella

20. Koplics spot is seen in:

• (A) Rubella (B) Herpes zoster
• (C) Measles (D) Meningitis

21.Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is:

• (A) Herpes of fifth nerve                   (B) Herpes of Seventh nerve
• (C) Herpes of geniculate ganglion (D) None of the above

22. Mumps in adult male can cause: —

• (A) Hydrocele (B) Sterility
• (C) Orchitis       (D) None of the above

23. Australia antigen is pathognomonic to:

• (A) HBV infection (B) HAV infection
• (C) HCV infection (D) HAV and HCV infection

24.Poliomyelitis affects:

• (A) Spinal cord
• (B)Posterior horn cells
• (C Anterior horn cell of spinal cord
• (D) Both anterior and posterior horn cells of spinal cord

25.Dengue fever is transmitted by:

• (A) Male aedes aegypti mosquitoes    (B) Anophilus mosquitoes
• (C) Female aedes aegypti mosquitoes (D) Culex mosquitoes

26. Black water fever occurs in:

• (A) Vivax malaria               (B) Ovale malaria
• (C) Falciparum malaria – (D) Chronic falciparum malaria

27. The causative organism of chronic duodenal ulcer is:

• (A) Salmonella (B) E.Coli
• (C) Clostridiuni (D) Helicobacter pylon

28.Carcino embryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in:

• (A) Colomc cancer (B) Hepatoma
• (C) Amoebiasis        (D) None of the above

29. Important cause of ascites in India is

• (A) Malnutrition     (B) Anaemia
• (C) Cardiac failure (D) Cirrhosis of liver

30. Normal level of bilirubin in the blood is

• (A) 3 mg/100 ml (B) 0.5 to 1.0 mg/100 ml
• (C) 2mg/l00ml    (D) None of the above

31. Urine does not contain bilirubin in:

• (A) Obstructive Jaundice (B) Hepato cellular jaundice
• (C) Both (A) and (B)            (D) Haemolytic jaundice

32. Alpha fetoprotein values above 2000 mg is diagnostic of:

• (A) Carcinoma liver (B) Cirrhosis of liver
• (C) Hepatic failure   (D) None of the above

33. Murphy’s sign is positive in:

• (A) Acute cholecystitis (B) Chronic cholecystitis
• (C) Acute appendicytis (D) None of the above

34. ERCP investigation is very useful in:

• (A) Liver disease        (B) Kidney disease
• (C) Pancreas disease (D) Spleen disease

35.Wilson’s disease is manifested as

• (A) Ceruloplasmin deficiency (B) Copper deficiency
• (C) Both (A) and (B)                      (D) None of the above

36.Cushing’s disease is caused by hyper secretion of:

• (A) Thyroxin                          (B) Glucocorticoid
• (C Adrenocorticotrophin (D) Growth hormone

37. Addison disease is:

• (A) Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency (B) Adrenocortical hyper function
• (C) Adrenal medulla hyperfunction             (D) None of the above

38.Seronegative arthritis is:

• (A) Osteo arthritis            (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
• (C) Rheumatic arthritis (D) Ankylosing spondylitis

39. Hallmark of Bronchial asthma is:

• (A) Dyspnoea                   (B) Cough
• (C) Expiratory wheeze (D) Cyanosis

40. Criteria for diagnosing tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:

• (A) High eosinophilic count(B) Asthma
•  (C) Raised ESR                          (D)Absolute eosinophilic count above 2000/CMM in peripheral blood

41. Postural cough with large amount of foul smelling sputa is characteristic of:

• (A) Chronic bronchitis (B) Bronchiectasis
• (C) Emphysema              (D) Tuberculosis

42. Cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemia is:

• (A) Iron deficiency (B) Folic acid deficiency
• (C) Both(A)and(B)    (D) None of the above

43. Pacemaker of heart is:

• (A) A.V. Node       (B) Right Atria
• (C) Bundle of HIS (D) S.A. Node

44.Wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound is present in:

• (A) V.S.D. (B) A.S.D.
• (C) P.D.A. (D) None of the above

45. Corrigans pulse is present in:

• (A) M.S. (B) M.R.
• (C) A.S. (D) A.R.

46. Dysdiadochokinesis is a feature of:

• (A) UMNL                      (B) LMNL
• (C) Cerebellar lesion (D) Extra pyramidal lesion

47. The triad of hypokinesia, tremor and rigidity occurs in:

• (A) Epilepsy (B) Head injury
• (C) Stroke (D) Parkinsonism

48. Post infective polyneuropathy is

• (A) Guillain-Barre syndrome (B) Polio myelitis
• (C) Cerebral palsy                       (D) None of the above

49. Auspitz’s sign is seen in:

• (A) Eczema            (B) Psoriasis
• (C) Lichen plains (D) Scabies

50. Commonest cause of Dementia is:

• (A) Head injury (B) Stroke
• (C) Old age           (D) Alzheimers disease

51. Cough from exposure to dry cold weather:

• (A) Phosphorus (B) Bryonia
• (C) Arsalb            (D) Aconite

52. Intense thirst in dropsy but no thirst in fever:

• (A) Acetic acid (B) Belladonna
• (C) Bryonia        (D) Sulphur

58. Dyspnoea worse in damp wet rainy weather

• (A) Arsalb               (B) Sulphur
• (C) Natrum sulph (D) Heparsulph

54. Cough aggravation lying on left side:

• (A) Bryonia         (B) Heparsulph
• (C) Phosphorus (D) Natmur

55. Patient fears that the heart will stop if he moves

• (A) Gelsemium (B) Digitalis
• (C) Cactus           (D) Apis

56. Cough persists alter measles:

• (A) Belladonna (B) Aconite
• (C) Cina                (D) Sanguinaria

57 Sensation as if the heart were grasped with an iron hand:

• (A) Sulphur (B) Kalmia
• (C) Cactus    (D) Spigelia

58.Vesicular eruptions along the course of the nerve:

• (A) Ranunculus Bulbosus (B) Rhustox
• (C) Mezereum                         (D) Sulphur

59. Sleeplessness from good news:

• (A) Ignatia       (B) Coffea
• (C) Passiflora  (D) Pulsatilla

60. In whooping cough for ‘Minute Gun? cough:

• (A) Drosera                      (B) Cuprum met
• (C) Corallium rubrum (D) Coccus cacti

To achieve the clinical goal for the prevention of CHD, a total cholesterol HDL ratio is

• (A) less than 9.2 (B) greater than 4.5
• (C) less than 3.5 (D) less than 5.3

62. Modifiable risk factors of hypertension are the following, except:

• (A) Dietary fibre (B) Obesity
• (C) Salt intake      (D) Genetic factors

63.Impaired glucose tolerance test, 2 hours after glucose load in venous blood is in between:

• (A) 140-200 mg/dl (B)120-180 mgldl
• (C) 160-220 mg/dl (D) 160-200 mg/dl

64. Prevention strategies are very important in case of:

• (A) Burns (B) Drowning
• (C Injuries (D) Falls

65. The most important immediate newborn care is:

• (A) Clearing the airway (B) Care of eyes
• (C) Care of the cord        (D) Care of skin

66. During pregnancy weight gain by an average normal healthy woman is:

• (At 12kg (B) 16kg
• (C) 10kg (D) 11kg

67. Universal Immunization Programme was stared in India:

• (A) 1974 (B) 1990
• (C) 1985 (D) 2000

68. Which is the medical complication of safe period?

• (A) Hypertension                    (B) Ectopic pregnancy
• (C) Irregular menstruation (D) None of the above

69. A nation wide family planning prog started in India:

• (A) 1970 (B) 1962
• (C) 1986 (D) 1952

70.The salient features of population growth in which the global total fertility rates 2002 is:

• (A) 5.2 (B) 4
• (C) 1.8 (D) 2.8

71. What is the dietary allowance of vitamin Bi during pregnancy?

• (A) 1.8 mcg (B) 2 mcg
• (C) 0.2 mcg (D) 1.5 mcg

72. The following live vaccines can produce effective immunity with a single dose except:

• (A) Oral polio (B) Measles
• (C) Influenza (D) Plague

73. Which of the following are the natural sources of invisible fats?

• (A) Cooking oils             (B) Ghee and butter
• (C) Cereals and pulses (D) Milk and milk products

74.Following are the important sources of folate except:

• (A) Liver      (B) Meat
• (C) )Orange (D) Cereals

75.Following are the deficiency states associated with Vitamin B12 except:

• (A) Infertility
• (B) Pernicious anaemia
• (C) Demyellnating neurological lesion in spinal cord
• (D) None of the above

76. IDD programme is related to:

• (A) Balanced diet (B) Goitre
• (C) AIDS                  (D) Welfare programmes

77. The recommended level of fluoride in the drinking water for the prevention of fluorine deficiency is

• (A) 0.9 to 2 mg/litre (B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre
• (C) .2 to .6 mg/litre   (D) None of the above

78. Which is the prime source of water?

• (A) Surface water (B) Wells
• (C) Sea water         (D) Rain water

79. Which of the following is related to methaemoglobinaemia?

• (A) High nitrate             (B) High fluorides
• (C) None of the above (D) All of the above

80.The minimum capacity of a septic tank is:

• (A) 700 gallons (B) 900 gallons
• (C) 800 gallons (D) 500 gallons

81. Name of the first chemical coagulant that is used in rapid sand fillers:

• (A) Bleaching powder (B) Chlorine gas
• (C) Alum                           (D) None of the above

82. The amount of residual chlorine at the end of one hour contact:

• (A) 0.08 mg/litre (B) 0.06 mg/litre
• (C) 0.5 mg/litre    (D) 0.09 mg/litre

83.Which one is the most insanitary method of disposal of human excreta?

• (A) Burial     (B) Manure pits
• (C Dumping (D) None of the above

84.Following elements which contributes herd immunity except:

• (A) Immunization of the herd
• (B) Herd structure
• (C) Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd
• (D) None of the above

85.Most of the vaccines stored upto 5 weeks if the refrigerator temperature is kept between:

• (A) 6—10 degree C (B) —20 degree C
• (C) 4 & 8 Degree      (D) 5&9degreeC

86. The important toxoid is:

• (A) Pertussis       (B) Plague
• (C) KFD vaccine (D) Tetanus

87.Which immunoglobulin is found relatively in large quantities in body secretions?

• (A) IgE (B)
• (C) 1gM (D) IgD

88. The most important diagnostic clinical sign of German Measles is:

• (A) Lymphadenopathy (B) Kopliks spots
• (C) Rashes                           (D) All of the above

89. The incubation period of Influenza is:

• (A) 2—13 days      (B) 8—10 days
• (C) 18—72 hours (D) None of the above

90. The most important part of diarrhoeal control measure, advocated by WHO/UNICEF is

• (A) ORT                                        (B) Personal hygiene
• (C) Medicinal management (D) All of the above

91.Man is the only one reservoir of infection:

• (A) Typhoid fever (B) Influenza
• (C) Rabies                 (D) None of the above

92.Which diagnostic test is more reliable in searching and identifying the malarial parasite?

• (A) Culture method      (B) Thin film
• (C) Fluorescent study (D) Thick film

93. “Doubling up” is the local word meaning of

• (A) Undulent fever         (B) Dengue fever
• (C) Chikungunya fever (D) West Nile fever

94.The aedes aegypti index should not be more than:

• (A) 4%    (B) 3%
• (C) 1%     (D) 2

95.Water is the most effective natural barrier of:

• (A) Rabies (B) Yellow fever
• (C) SARS    (D) Plague

96.Serious fungal infections are found in AIDS when T-helper cell count has dropped to around:

• (A) 300 (B) 50  (C) 100 (D) 200

97. Which pathogen causing genital and anal warts?

• (A) Herpes simplex virus (B) Human papilloma virus
• (C) Candida albicans           (D) All of the above

98. In multibacillary leprosy Bi is:

• (A) greater than 4 (B) greater than 2
• (C) less than 3       (D) less than 2

99.Excessive beer consumption is associated with:

• (A) Oral cancer (B) Oesophageal cancer
• (C) cancer           (D) Liver cancer

100. Major manifestation of rheumatic heart diseases are the following except:

• (A) Chorea (B) Polyarthralgia and fever
• (C) Carditis (D) Polyarthritis