MOH UAE TCAM Question Papers

 Five Question Papers of MOH UAE Alternative medicine Examinations

Instructions:
1) This examination paper consists of 9 pages and 100 questions. Please Check that you have all the pages.
2) Write your Examination Number on each page of the question paper, on the top right hand corner.
3) Each question consists of a stem followed by four items identified by A, B, C, and D. There are also some TRUE and FALSE questions. Only one of multiple choices is the most appropriate answer. Select this by encircling the correct letter.

Question paper  February 2002
Time allowed: 2 hours

Please complete the following in English:
1) Full Name (Block Letters): ___________________________________
2) Examination Number: _______________________________________
3) Signature: _________________________________________________

The following are examples:
Example 1          Example 2
The most common primary cardiac tumor is :     Pericarditis occurs in all of the a following, EXCEP T:
A. myxoma         ;     A. rheumatic fever
B. sarcoma         B. tuberculosis
C. rhabdomyoma       C. pneumonia
D. fibroma       D. scarlet fever

4) YOU ARE ALSO REQUIRED TO COMPLETE THE COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET SEPARATELY.
III. WARNING:
1) It is strictly forbidden for candidates to talk or to attempt to communicate with each other while the examination is in progress.
2) Question papers must not be copied or removed from the examination room.

THE QUESTION PAPER MUST BE RETURNED WITH THE COMPLETED COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET..

1) Notification is a statutory obligation in the following infections except:
A) Food poisoning
B) Viral hepatitis
C) Measles and rubella
D) Laryngitis

2) With regard to travelers’ diarrhoea, which one of the following statements is true:
A) No causative organism is identified in 65% of patients
B) Most attacks require drug treatment
C) Antidiarrhoeal agents are particularly useful in children
D) Doxycycline prophylaxis is advised for all travelers’ to sub-Saharan Africa

3) Noteworthy factors in the assessment of pyrexia of unknown origin includes all except:
A) History of travel abroad
B) Occupational history
C) History recent vaccination
D) Recent drug therapy

4) The most common condition requiring surgery during the first 2 months of life is:
A) Volvulus
B) Inguinal hernia
C) Intussusception
D) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

5) Legg Calve Perthes disease:
A) Is painful
B) Is bilateral in 80% of cases
C) Is more common in females than in males
D) Occurs between the ages of 2 to 12 years (mean age of 7 years)

6) Low serum iron, elevated serum ferritin, and normal iron- binding capacity typically occur in:
A) Thalassemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Anemia of chronic inflammation or infection

7) Which of the following eye disorders is most likely to occur in patients with ankylosing spondylitis?
A) Iritis
B) Cataract
C) Glaucoma
D) Conjunctivitis

8) Following recovery from pneumonia, a 46-year – old man develops paralysis of the proximal and distal muscles of the leg, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Syringomyelia
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Guillain-Barre syndrome
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

9) Bell’s palsy occurs in about 20% of patients with:
A) Malaria
B) Lyme disease
C) Leptospirosis
D) Relapsing fever

10) Abdominal pain associated with erythrocyte stippling and footdrop or wristdrop typically occurs in:
A) Thalassemia
B) Lead poisoning
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Infectious mononucleosis

11) Breath sounds are increased in:
A) Atelectasis
B) Pneumothorax
C) Both
D) Neither

12) Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased:
A) Transferrin saturation
B) Total iron- binding capacity
C) Free erythrocyte protoporphrin
D) All of the above

13) The best test for a 15 month old male with recurrent pneumonia due to pseudomonas aeruginosa is:
A) sweat test
B) Schilling test
C) Serum lead levels
D) Respiratory function tests.

14) 19 year old sexually ac tive woman presents with right upper quadrant pain due to gonococcal perihepatitis, this is called:
A) Mittelschmerz
B) Reiter’s syndrome
C) Leriche’s syndrome
D) Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome

15) Which of the following tests you would order for a 19 year old female with sore throat and cervical adenopathy?
A) Schilling test
B) Coombs test
C) Schirmer test
D) Monospot test

16) Anthrax (malignant pustule; woolsorter’s disease) is caused by:
A) Virus
B) Fungus
C) Bacteria
D) Rickettsia

17) Pregnant women should avoid taking:
A) Digoxin
B) Glyburide
C) Ethambutol
D) All of the above

18) The most common gynecologic malignancy in a 20-year -old female is:
A) Vulvar cancer
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Cervical cancer
D) Endometrial cancer

19) 62 year old woman complains of jaw pain when chewing and diminished vision of her right eye, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Glaucoma
B) Temporal arteritis
C) Tension headache
D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus

20) A14 year old boy is brought to you because of intense itching around his fingers with visible excoriations, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Scabies
B) Lymphoma
C) Erysipelas
D) Sarcoidosis

21) The most likely cause of a bulge behind the knee of a 58 year old woman with long history of arthritis is:
A) Hematoma
B) Baker’s cyst
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Arteriovenous malformation

22) A child has a midline neck mass that elevates with the protrusion of the tongue, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Cystic hygroma
B) Branchial cleft cyst
C) Thyroglossal duct cyst
D) Cervical lymphadenitis

23) What is the most common cause of intracranial hemorrhage?
A) Trauma
B) Hypertension
C) Coagulopathy
D) Arteriovenous malformation

24) Cervical disk herniation is most common at:
A) C1- C2
B) C2- C3
C) C4- C5
D) C6- C7

25) Which of the following disorders is most likely to occur in short boys aged 4 to 10 years?
A) Congenital hip dysplasia
B) Osgood-Schlatter disease
C) Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
D) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

26) Reticulocyte count is NOT low in:
A) Thalassemia
B) Lead poisoning
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Iron deficiency anemia

27) A patient with nephrotic syndrome has white horizontal lines on his nails, this is known as:
A) Koilonychia
B) Beau’s lines
C) Terry’s nails
D) Muehrcke’s nails.

28) What test you would order for a 38 year with history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease and diarrhea?
A) Sweat test
B) Schilling test
C) Small bowel biopsy
D) Serum gastrin levels

29) Runny nose, sneezing, and coughing in a 2 year old child is most likely due to:
A) Croup
B) Asthma
C) Epiglottitis
D) Bronchiolitis

30) Hyperpigmentation, salt craving, postural hypotension, and fasting hypoglycemia aresymptoms of:
A) Addison disease
B) Diabetes insipi dus
C) Cushing syndrome
D) Hyperparathyroidism

31) The most common hernia of all ages and both sexes is:
A) Femoral hernia
B) Umbilical hernia
C) Direct inguinal hernia
D) Indirect inguinal hernia

32) The most common cause of acute abdomen in children and adolescents is:
A) Volvulus
B) Pancreatitis
C) Peptic ulcer
D) Appendicitis

33) 16 year old female breaks up with the boyfriend, cries everyday, and refuses to go back to school, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Conduct disorder
B) Major depression
C) Conversion disorder
D) Adjustment disorder

34) Obesity is a risk factor for:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Both
D) Neither

35) Estrogen therapy increases the incidence of:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Ischemic heart disease
C) Both
D) Neither

36) High parity (multiparity) is a risk factor for:
A) Breast cancer
B) Cervical cancer
C) Endometrial cancer
D) All of the above

37) Tetany is associated with:
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypomagnesemia
C) Both
D) Neither

38) Which of the following values is increased during pregnancy?
A) Serum iron
B) Serum ferritin
C) Iron binding capacity
D) All of the above

39) Sudden onset of cyanosis with aphonia and inability to cough in a 2 year old child is most likely due to:
A) Croup
B) Epiglottitis
C) Laryngomalacia
D) Foreign body aspiration

40) Labyrinthitis causes:
A) Fever
B) Ear pain
C) Dizziness
D) Aural fullness

41) Hutchinson’s tr iad of congenital syphilis consists of tooth abnormalities, deafness, and:
A) Keratitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Cholangitis
D) Pancreatitis.

42) The most common extracutaneus site of involvement of chickenpox in children is:
A) Genitourinary system
B) Cardiovascular system
C) Central nervous system
D) Gastrointestinal system

43) Anterior curvature of the spine is called:
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta

44) The most likely cause of painless jaundice of one month duration in a 72 year old man is:
A) Acute cholangitis
B) Acute cholecystitis
C) Carcinoma of pancreas
D) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

45) Primary Osteoarthritis is mostly related to:
A) Sex
B) Hormonal disturbances
C) Age
D) Occupation

46) Which of the following is NOT a radiological feature of OA?
A) Loss of joint space
B) Presence of new bone formation or osteophytes
C) Cyst formation
D) Presence of foreign body in the joint

47) Itch caused by Scabies is often exacerbated at:
A) Night
B) Morning before noon
C) Early morning
D) Afternoon

48) …………………………..is usually extremely itchy. The patient presents with excoriated blisters on the elbows, buttocks and knees.
A) Xerosis
B) Bullous Pemphigoid
C) Urticaria
D) Dermatitis Herpatiformis

49) Xerosis is a common skin symptom in what age group?
A) Below five years old
B) Teenagers
C) Infants
D) Old age

50) Pruritus is often the most bothersome symptom and usually precedes other signs and symptoms of which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes Mellitus
B) Cholestatic Liver disease
C) Alzheimer Disease
D) Migraine

51) Dementia usually follows a:
A) Progressively deteriorating condition
B) Rapidly improving condition
C) Stable condition
D) Fluctuating condition

52) Most causes of Dementia are currently:
A) Avoidable
B) Curable
C) Incurable
D) Acute

53) The risk of developing dementia is related to:
A) Viral infection
B) Age and family
C) Environmental factors
D) Emotional distress

54) Which of the following statements about infective arthritis is true:
A) The onset is typically insidious
B) Haemophilus influenza is the most common causative organism in adults
C) Pre-existing arthritis is a recognized predisposing factor
D) Small peripheral joints are involved more often than larger joints

55) Polyarthrlagia is NOT a common presenting complaint in:
A) Rubella
B) Depression
C) Juvenile Diabetes
D) Metabolic bone disease.

56) Which of the following disorders does not usually produce signs and symptoms in the joints:
A) Lyme disease
B) Acromegaly
C) Chronic sarcoidosis
D) Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

57) Shoulder pain is NOT a recognized feature of:
A) Myocardial Ischaemia
B) Supra spinatus Tendonitis
C) Scleritis
D) Cervical spondylosis

58) Osteoarthritis is:
A) Evident radiologically in at least 80% of patients > 65 years old
B) More likely to be generalized and severe in males
C) Best managed with anti-inflammatory doses of NSAIDs
D) Related to bronchial Carcinoma

59) In a patient with neck pain:
A) Aggravation by sneezing suggests cervical disc prolapse
B) Associated bilateral arm paresthesiae suggests angina pectoris
C) Otherwise normal joints, rheumatoid arthritis is excluded as a possible diagnosis
D) Antinuclear antibodies are characteristically absent

60) The clinical features of Gout exclude:
A) Cellulitis, tensosynovitis and bursitis
B) The abrupt onset of severe joint pain at tenderness
C) Serum urate levels fall during the attack
D) Loin pain and haematuria

61) Which is the most common bacterial cause of community acquired pneumonia?
A) Streptococcus Pneumoniae
B) Herpes Simplex
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Salmonella

62) Finger clubbing is a typical finding in:
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Fever
D) Functional dyspepsia

63) …………………………is usually spread via the faecal-oral route:
A) Hepatitis B
B) Cholera
C) TB
D) Atopic Dermatitis

64) In which of the followi ng infections notification to Health authorities is not necessary:
A) Food poisoning
B) Viral Hepatitis
C) Measles and Rubella
D) Mild tonsillitis

65) Sexually transmissible viral disease include:
A) Hepatitis A, B and C
B) Influenza
C) Brucellosis
D) Myocarditis

66) For treatment of Tetanus the best management would be:
A) Washing of the wound with horse urine
B) Administration of human antitetanus immunoglobuline
C) Physiotherapy of the stiffness
D) Wound should be left alone to heal naturally

67) Which of the following is not a recognized complication of heart failure?
A) Hyponatraemia
B) Sudden death
C) Impaired LFT
D) Anaemia

68) Which of the following therapies does not improve the long term prognosis after myocardial infarction?
A) Aspirin
B) ACE inhibitor
C) B blockers
D) Mint tea infusions

69) The diagnosis of peptic ulcer is best made with
A) Endoscopy
B) Barium Meal X Ray
C) Plain X Ray
D) Coating of tongue.

70) One of the main causes of Oliguria is:
A) Diabetes Mellitus
B) Addison’s disease
C) Decreased Renal Perfusion
D) Chronic hyperglycemia

71) Pneumaturia is the……………….
A) Passage of casts in urine
B) Passage of gas in urine
C) Passage of epithelial cells in urine
D) Passage of RBCs in urine

72) In adults the most frequent diagnosis of primary tumors of the anterior mediastinum is:
A) Germ Cell neoplasms
B) Lymphomas
C) Endocrine tumors
D) Thymic lesions (cysts, hyperplasia,thymoma)

73) Carcinoma of stomach is most likely to metastasize to:
A) Liver
B) Peritoneum
C) Lungs
D) Bone

74) In investigating a patient for possible hepatocellular carcinoma, the best tumor marker would be:
A) Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin
B) Alkaline Phosphatase
C) a-fetoprotein
D) S-100 antigen

75) Which of the following features is most characteristic of non-insulin- dependent, type II Diabetes?
A) Obese body weight
B) Age on onset usually under 30
C) Ketosis is common
D) History of smoking

76) A 60-year-old woman has a three-month continuous history of morning stiffness, and pain and swelling of the second and third metacarpalphalangeal joints of both hands. The best diagnosis is:
A) Definite Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Possible scleroderma
C) Definite Osteoarthritis
D) Classic psoriatic arthritis

77) A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with two-hour history of chest tightness, coughing, and wheezing. The history determines that he has had many such attacks in recent years, usually brought on by emotional factors or exertion, and generally treatable by self-medication at home. There is a longhistory of hay fever and other members of the familyhave similar symptoms. Physical examination reveals dyspnoea, orthopnea, and cyanosis. High-pitched sibilant rhonchi occur on inspiration and ex piration and some coarse crepitations are audible. Pulse is 130/min and regular. Coughing produces viscid sputum. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Right heart failure
B) Left heart failure
C) Asthma
D) Pneumonoconiosis

78) Precipitating factors in this patient’s (question 77) condition include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Exposure to antigen
B) Salt ingestion
C) Excitement
D) Irritants

79) Pulmonary function studies during an acute attack (ref. to question 77) are most likely to show:
A) Decreased FEV1
B) Increased vital capacity
C) Decreased residual volume
D) Increased arterial PO2

80) A 28 year old woman presents to your clinic with a history of diarrhea and crampy abdominal pain. In retrospect, the attacks have been increasing in frequency and severity for the past three years, so that there are now at least ten bowel movements per day. She has lost 10% of her body weight in the past year. On examination, she is a thin woman in acute distress from abdominal cramps. A boggy mass can be palpated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, associated with marked tenderness, but nor guarding. Examination of the anal area reveals an apparent perianal fistula..
X-ray of the GI system are taken and on review show that a barium enema is essentially normal. An upper GI series shows a normal esophagus and stomach, but there are several areas of stenosis in the ileum separated by normal bowel. A mass of adherent loops of ileum with evidence of fistulous connections between several loops.

The most likely diagnosis of this patient is:
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Acute appendicitis
D) Carcinoma of the small bowel

81) The above (question 80) long standing disease may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Polyarthritis
C) Emotional instability
D) Respiratory failure

82) The most common complication of chickenpox in children is:
A) Pneumonia
B) Cystitis
C) Secondary bacterial skin infection
D) Encephalitis

83) Which statement is true concerning Hodgkin’s disease?
A) The peak incidence is between 15 and 34 years of age
B) The most common presenting finding is enlargement of cervical lymph nodes
C) More than 90% of patients initially achieve a complete clinical remission
D) All of the above

84) With regard to mortality in relation to smoking which of the following is NOT correct?
A) Current male cigarette smokers have a 70% greater chance of dying from disease than non smokers
B) Specific mortality ratios are directly proportional to the amount smoked and the years of cigarette smoking
C) Mortality ratios are also higher for those who initiated their smoking at younger ages
D) Former cigarette smokers carry their increased mortality rate with them after they stop smoking.

85) With regard to smoking and cancer of the lungs which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The most definite causal relationship between the use of tobacco and any disease is with lung cancer
B) The use of filter cigarettes with low tar and nicotine content decreases lung cancer mortality
C) Smokers experience decrease in lung cancer mortality rates, which approaches the rate of nonsmokers, after 10 or 15 years of cessation.
D) Cancer of the lungs has become the leading cause of cancer deaths in women in the past decade

86) Vitamin C increases iron absorption:
A) True
B) False

87) Iron deficiency in infancy may cause impaired psychomotor development
A) True
B) False

88) Iron deficiency is more common in late childhood than adolescence
A) True
B) False

89) In older patients, a recurrent chalazion in the same location should prompt referral
A) True
B) False

90) Upper eyelid swellings in a child should raise suspicion of a dermoid
A) True
B) False

91) Bacterial conjunctivitis generally has a watery discharge.
A) True
B) False

92) Glaucoma generally produces significant purulent discharge
A) True
B) False

93) Enuresis, thirst, weight loss and a tiredness that has withdrawn a child from usual play and activities should alert you to diabetes
A) True
B) False

94) All childhood diabetes is due to type I diabetes
A) True
B) False

95) Sensitivity to the house dust mite is associated with an increased risk for current asthma
A) True
B) False

96) An indoor domestic pet could be suggestive of an allergic trigger in a person with chronic asthma
A) True
B) False

97) Ulcerative colitis typically causes abdominal pain
A) True
B) False

98) A delayed release preparation of fish oil has been shown to prolong the remission of Crohn’s disease
A) True
B) False

99) Pruritus of cholestatic liver disease generally appears on the abdomen
A) True
B) False

100) Solar keratoses are indicators of cumulative sun exposure
A) True
B) False

More Question Papers

Question Paper II : www.homeobook.com/pdf/moh-uae-question-paper2.pdf

Question paper III  

Question paper IV  : www.homeobook.com/pdf/moh-uae-question-paper4.pdf

Question paper V  

How to practice Homoeopathy, Ayurveda and other Complementary Alternative systems in UAE. Tips on preparation and interview
https://www.homeobook.com/moh-uae-exam-tips-on-application-preparation-interview/