Maximum Marks : 100 Maximum Time : 90 Minutes
1. Carrying any electronic gadgets like Pager, Cell Phone, Cordless Phone, Bluetooth, Calculator etc. to the Examination Hall amounts to malpractice may lead to debarring the candidate from writing exam.
2. Do not write/mark anything on the question paper booklet except Register Number. Any other markings made on the Question Booklet would be considered as Mal-practice may lead to debarring the candidate from writing exam.
3. Do not open the booklet during the first ten minutes after the 2nd bell at 9.50, a.m. You should not look inside the Questions Booklet or start answering on the answer sheet during initial 10 minutes. Remove the seal on the side to open this booklet only after the 3rd bell at 10.00 a.m. and start answering.
4. The initial 10 minutes are meant to enter your Name, Roll No., Question Booklet No., on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet. As the OMR sheet is designed for the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) system, special care should be taken to fill items accurately.
5. The question paper and OMR answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
6. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions and 90 minutes given for answering. Any variation should be brought to the notice of the invigilator immediately.
7. During the 90 minutes:
(i) Read each question carefully.
(ii) Choose the most appropriate single answer from out of the four available alternatives under each question.
(iii) Completely darken the relevant oval with a blue or black ball-point pen against the question number on the answer sheet.
(iv) Any inadvertent drop/mark of pen/ink on the other oval marks makes the answer invalid.
For Example :
Q. No. 14: In which of the following, air borne transmission occurs ?
(a) French fever (b) Kyasanur Forest disease
(c) Q fever (d) Relapsing fever
As the most appropriate single answer is option “c” you should darken the oval corresponding to the option “c” completely with a blue or black ball-point pen, on the OMR sheet once marked, any corrections using eraser, whitener or any sharp object is treated as malpractice.
8. For each correct answer, one mark will be awarded.
(a) There shall be no deduction of marks for wrong answer.
(b) If more than one alternative is marked, it will be considered as a wrong answer.
(c) Wrong answers carry no marks.
9. Rough work should be done only on the blank page at the end of the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the OMR sheet.
10. Please stop writing when the last bell at 11.30 a.m. Hand over the OMR sheet set to the invigilator who will separate the top sheet and will retain the same with him and return the duplicate copy to you to carry it home.
11. If you want to leave the Examination Hall earlier, you should hand over the question paper and the OMR answer sheet to the invigilator and collect the question paper and the duplicate copy of the OMR sheet at the end of the scheduled dosing time 11.30 a.m.
1. HIV virus attacks
- a) Helper T cells b) Suppressor T cells
- c) Cytotoxic T cells d) Memory cells
2. Auerbach’s plexus of GIT are concerned with
- a) Secretion of GIT
- b) Motor functions of GIT
- c) Above all
- d) None
3. The respiratory centers are situated in
- a) Pons and medulla b) Cerebellum
- c) Hypothalamus d) Thalamus .
4. Athletes show resting bradycardia due to
- a) increase vagal tone
- b) decrease vagal tone
- c) increased sympathetic stimulation
- d) none
5. Renin – Angiotensin mechanism associated with
- a) Fall in BP b) Rise in BP
- c) Hypertension d) None
6. Misanthropic wants to fly away from his own family, mistrustful are the symptom of
- a) Hepar sulph b) Fluoric acid
- c) Bryonia d) Lycopodium
7. Atrophic rhinitis is the main symptom in
- a) Lemna Minor b) Ledum
- c) Mer. sol. d) Kali Carb
8. Milk in the breast instead of menses is the symptom of
- a) Silicea b) Pulsatilla
- c) Phytolacca d) Mercurius sol
9. The characteristic tongue of Ipecac is
- a) clean b) thickly coated
- c) mapped d) red tipped
10. Calcarea carb is adapted to constitution of
- a) Leucophlegmatic b) Scrofulous
- c) Phlegmatic d) None of these
11. Systematic Alphabetic Repertory of Homoeopathic Remedy Doctrine
- a) Woss b) Rucket
- c) Jahr d) Hempel
12. The methods of cross repertorisation are
- a) Rearranging totality b) Integrated approach
- c) All of the above d) None of the above
13. Stimulare is a
- a) New Repertory
- b) New Software Programme
- c) New Drug
- d) New method of prescription
14. ‘Dolphin’ is related to
- a) Repertory
- b) Software programme
- c) Text book in repertory
- d) None of the above
15. Miasmatic Repertory by R.P Patel was published on
- a) 1995 b) 1996
- c) 2006 d) 2000
16. Chronic asthma in summer is a feature of
- a) Psorinurn b) Medorrhinum
- c) Bovista d) Syphillinum
17. Fear of being assassinated is in
- a) Lac Can b) Aurum Met
- c) Zincurn d) Plumbum Met
18. 1st Edition of Organon book published in 1810 by
- a) Gillbert b) Lord Bacon
- c) Sarkar d) Arnold Dresden
19. Hyoscyamus cough is characterized by
- a) Nervous cough
- b) Aggravated by lying down when head touches the pillow
- c) Caused by elongated uvula
- d) All of these
20. In Cuprum met convulsion, the aura begins in
- a) Lower extremities
- b) Upper extremities
- c) Abdomen
- d) Face
21 . BTPB is published in
- a) 1896
- b) 1897
- c) 1846
- d) 1833
22. Headquarters of WHO situated in
- a) USA
- b) Geneva
- c) Tokyo
- d) New Delhi
23. Incubation period of measles
- a) 2 weeks
- b) 3 weeks
- c) 4 weeks
- d) 5 weeks
24. Vector of Chikungunya
- a) Housefly
- b) Mosquito
- c) Tick
- d) Cockroach
25. The optimum level of total cholesterol should be less than
- a) 100 mg/dl
- b) 200 mg/dl
- c) 250 mg/dl
- d) 350 mg/dl
26. Guernsey’s Card Repertory was based on
- a) BBCR b) Lippe’s Repertory
- c) BTPB d) Kent’s Repertory
27. ‘Quis’ means
- a) Diseases b) Location
- c) Modality d) Personality
28. “Quando’ means
- a) Location
- b) Personality
- c) Modality
- d) Time
29. The abbreviation CoCl
- a) Coccus cacti
- b) Cocculus
- c) Coccainuem
- d) Coca
30. ‘Fragmenta Deviribus; Medicarnentorus Postious’ was published in
- a) 1806
- b) 1810
- c) 1805
- d) 1811
31. Treatment of Indisposition
- a) Slight alteration of diet and regimen
- b) Constitutional remedy
- c) Acute remedy
- d) Anti Miasmatic
32. Test to find out true mental disease and mental disease of doubtful origin is given in
- a) 93 b) 210
- c) 224 d) 230
33. Reason for Homeopathic aggravation
- a) Massive dose b) Drug abuse
- c) Small dose d) Dose is riot sufficiently small enough
34. § no. 4 of Organon of Medicine deals with
- a) Preserver of health b) Unprejudice observer
- c) Science of hygiene d) Preventive medicine
35. Glycated Hemoglobin is a. combination of
- a) Carbon dioxide + HbA b) Ferric iron + HbA
- c) Glucose + HbA d) Glycine + HbA
36. Homoeopathy and Child Care was published by
- a) Dr. S.K. Tiwari b) R.P.Patil
- c) Sivaraman d) None of the above
37. The word ‘rubric’ originated from
- a) Latin b) German
- c) Greek d) English
38. Gentry Repertory consists of f6flowing volumes
- a) 4 b) 3
- c) 5 d) 6
39. Knerr’s Repertory was published in
- a) 1898 b) 1896
- C) 1996 d) 1847
40. The Repertory which is related to clinical repertories
- a) Bell’s Diarrhoea
- b) Kent’s Repertory
- c) Murphy’s Repertory
- d) Synthesis
41. All are features of Vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT
- a) Xerophthalmia
- b) Osteomalacia
- c) Follicular hyperkeratosis
- d) Keratomalacia
42. Chest pain due to pericarditis is
- a) Precipitated by exertion
- b) Radiated to left arm
- c) Relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
- d) Associated with sweating
43.) The ‘a’ wave in the Jugular venous tracing is due to
- a) Ventricular Diastole b) Ventricular Systole
- c) Atrial Diastole d) Atrial Systole
44. Continuous murmur is heard in
- a) Atnal Septal Defect b) Ventricular Septal Defect
- c) Pallet’s Tetroiogy d) Patent-Ductus Arteriosus
45. The part of Electro cardiogram that corresponds with Ventricular depolarisation is
- a) P wave b) QRS complex
- c) PR interval d) ST-segment
46. P wave of ECG is due to
- a) Atrial repolarization b) Atria depolarization
- c) Ventricular depolarization d) Ventricular repolarization
47. Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic Medicine was published by
- a) Phatak b) Carke
- c) Murphy d) Schroyens
48. Phatak’s Repertory was published on
- a) 1963 b) 1964
- c) 1974 d) 1984
49. Roger von Zandoort is associated with
- a) Complete repertory
- b) Repertorium Universale
- c) All the above
- d) None of the above
50. Phoenix Repertory is published by
- a) J.P.S. Bakshi b) S.P.S. Bakshi
- c) D. Bakshi d) None of the above
51. Calcutta Homoeopathic Medical College was established by Dr. D.N.Roy and
- a) Rajendralal Dutt b) Diwan Jai Chand
- c) Father Muller d) Dr. Pratapchandra Majumdar
52. Father of Indian Homoeopathy
- a) Dr. Pradeep C. Majumdar b) B. C, Roy
- c) Rajendralal Dutt d) D. Roy
53. “Medicine of Experience” by Samuel Hahnemann in
- a) 1810 b) 1847
- c) 1828 d) 1805
54. 6th edition of Organon of Medicine published in
- a) 1809 b) 1804
- c) 1790 d) 1921
55. Title of 1st edition of Organon book
- a) Medicine of Experience
- b) My Experiments With Truth
- c) Fragmenta de Virubus
- d) Organon of Rational Art of Healing
56. Thyrotoxicosis is characterised by the following features, EXCEPT
- a) Tachycardia b) Constipation
- c) Tremor d) Weightless
57. Hypertension is a feature of all the following EXCEPT
- a) Renal Artery stenosis b) Pheochromo cytoma
- c) Addison’s disease d) Cushing’s syndrome
58. Trousseau’s sign is characteristic of
- a) Hyper thyroidism b) Hypo thyroidism
- c) Tetanus d) Tetany
59. Ptosis is caused by paralysis of
- a) III Cranial Nerve
- b) IV Cranial Nerve
- c) V Cranial Nerve
- d) V1 Cranial Nerve
60. First heart sound occurs due to
- a) opening of the AV valve
- b) closure of the semilunar valve
- c) closure of the AV valve
- d) opening of the semilunar valve
61. Kreosoturn is inimical to
- a) Carbo veg b) Kali carb
- c) Nux vomica. d) Phosphorous
62. Dreams that she is drinking
- a) Arsenic, b) Medorrhinum
- c) Phosphorus d) All the above
63. Fear of financial ruin
- a) Kali phos b) Calc fluor
- c) Calc phos d) Natrurn phos
64. Nodular swellings in joints is the symptom of
- a) Bryonia b) Conium
- c) Lithium Carb d) Allium Cepa
5. Diarrhoea of green watery frothy like scum on frogs pond is a symptom of
- a) Mag Mur b) Mag Carb
- c) Arnica d) Aconite
66. Birth year of J.T. Kent
- a) 2nd July 1843 b) 10th April 1847
- c) 31st March 1849 d) 1st 1847
67. “Chronic Diseases” by Samuel Hahnemann published in the year
- a) 1804 b) 1828
- c) 1905 d) 1811
68. Author of ‘Repertory of the Antipsoric Medicines
- a) C.H. Allen
- b) AllenT.F.
- c) Dr. C.M.F. Von Boenninghausen
- d) Jahr
69 “Encyclopedia of Pure Materia Medica” belongs to
- a) H.C. Allen b) Lippe
- c) 114 TF. Allen d) Hahnemann
70. Who proved Lachesis
- a) Hahnemann
- b) Dr. C. Hering
- c) Clarke J.H.
- d) Boger
7 1. In tonsillitis purple colour of throat beginning on left side is a symptom of
- a) Ruta b) Conium
- C) Lachesis d) Hepar Sulph
72. Complaints of Fluoric acid are better by
- a) Warmth b) Open air
- c) Cold application d) All of these
73. Toothache aggravation by drawing cold air into mouth or cold drinks; teeth turn black, crumble and decay on edges. Drug is
- a) Mercurius b) Mezerium
- c) Staphysagria d) None of these
74. Headache or neuralgia begin lightly, increase gradually to the highest point and then gradually decline seen in
- a) Kali bichromicum b) Pulsatilla
- c) Stannum met d) None of these
75. Malignant Hypertension occurs in
- a) Diabetes Mellitus b) Heart Disease
- c) Renal Disease d) None of above
76. Number of § in the 6t’ edition of Organon of Medicine
- a) 219 b) 258
- c) 291 d) 286
77. Treatment of Mental diseases comes under
- a) 269-271 b) 210 – 230
- c) 252-256 d) 245-251
78. Importance of PQRS symptoms explained in the § number
- a) 2 6 b)153
- c) 270 d) 5
79.Samuel Hahnemann has mentioned about obvious cause in the § number
- a) 93 b)39
- c)36 d)63
80. Idiosyncrasies has been explained in the § number
- a) 117 b)07
- c)143 d)153
81. Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
- a) Einthoven’s law
- b) Marey’s law
- c) Starling’s law
- d) Landsteiner’s law
82. Keratomalacia – a feature of
- a) Vitamin A deficiency
- b) Vitamin K deficiency
- c) Vitamin C deficiency
- d) Vitamin D deficiency
83. ADH – a secretion of
- a) Adrenal cortex b) Anterior pituitary
- c) Posterior pituitary d) Pancreas
84. Semicircular canal and otolithic organs of ear are concerned with
- a) Hearing b) Equilibrium
- c) Olfaction d) None
85. Devil’s Dung is the common name of’
- a) Baptisia tinctoria b) Asafoetida
- C)Melilotus d) Helleborus niger
86. Title page of 1st edition of Organon has the words from a Poe m by
- a) Arnold b) Christian Gellert
- C)Stapf, d) Dudgeon
87. Number of § in 2nd edition of Organon
- a) 292 b) 315
- c) 271 d) 319
88. The 3rd edition of Organon had number of §
- a) 317 b) 320
- c) 315 d) 292
89. Number of § in 5th edition of Organon
- a) 292 b) 294
- c) 320 d) 271
90. ‘Novum Organum’ was written by
- a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Bacon
- c) Lord Mountbatton d) R. E. Dudgeon
91. Specific enzyme detected in blood in Acute MI is
- a) CKMB b) SGOT
- c) SGPT d) Aldosterone
92. Koilonychia is seen in
- a) Vit. C deficiency b) Malignancy
- c) Folic acid deficiency d) Iron deficiency anemia
93. Faecal-oral route of spread of infection is found in
- a) Hepatitis-B b) Hepatitis-C
- c) Hepatitis-D d) Hepatitis-E
94. Clinical finding NOT associated with Typhoid fever
- a) Splenomegaly b) Rose-spots
- c) Erythema marginatum d) Abdominal distention
95. Bradycardia is seen in the following situations EXCEPT
- a) Hyper thyroidism
- b) Obstructive Jaundice
- c ) Hypothyroidism
- d) Complete Heart Block
96. Which of the following is NOT a feature of systemic Lupus Erythematosis ?
- a) Malar Rash b) Leucoc_ytosis
- c) Serositis d) Anti-DNA antibodies
97. HBsAG is found to be associated with
- a) Poly Myositis b) Rheumatoid Arthritis
- c) Polyarteritis Nodosa d) SLE
98. Hyperpigmentation is NOT a feature of
- a) Pheochromo cytoma
- b) Haemochronatosis
- c) Addison’s diseases
- d) Nelson’s syndrome
99. Flag sign is characteristic of
- a) Psoriasis b) Leprosy
- c) Kwashiorkor d) Malnutrition
100. `Kent’s Repertorium Genrale was published by
- a) P. Schmidt
- b) Jost Kunzili
- c) P. Sivaraman
- d) R.P.Patel
This is a question paper of Post Graduate Homoeopathy Entrance Test (AHPNP) 2011 conducted by Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences. Karnataka
We are thankful to Dr.Ram Jyothis & Vivek Sakthidharan for this question booklet
Download answer Key : www.homeobook.com/pdf/rguhs-md-2011-key.pdf
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Thank you for correct key 👍
please mention the seats for candidate out side of this state in rajib Gandhi University for MD admission.
q.no.69 ans is (c) T F ALLEN………
ans for q.no. 29 is coccoulus……BBCR…….
Ans of ques no. 16 is (d) syphilinum in the corrected key it is wrong…kindly note,…